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CounterexampleConstruction: Literature-sourcedVerification: AI-generatedprecheck passjudge pass (gpt-5.6-terra)audited 2026-09-01
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Topologically equivalent metrics on a vector space need not come from equivalent norms

Statement refuted

If two metrics on a vector space are topologically equivalent and one is induced by a norm, then the other is induced by an equivalent norm.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: A nonzero normed space (V,∥⋅∥) and the norm metric d(x,y):=∥x−y∥.

[L2]

A norm metric satisfies dM(λx,λy)=∣λ∣ dM(x,y) for every scalar λ (A norm on a real vector space, the induced metric, and the dictionary with the metric axioms).

Counterexample

technique · direct
1.1L1

By [L1], the metric d′(x,y):=min⁡{d(x,y),1} has the same topology as the original norm metric d.

2.1step 1.1L2assume-contra

Suppose d′ were induced by some norm M on V. Choose a nonzero vector v; then M(v)>0, so [L2] gives d′(tv,0)=M(tv)=∣t∣M(v) for every scalar t.

3.1step 2.1discharge-contradiction

The right-hand side of step 2.1 is unbounded as ∣t∣→∞, but by definition d′(tv,0)≤1 for every t. This contradiction shows that d′ is not induced by any norm at all.

4.1step 1.1step 3.1∎

Hence d′ is topologically equivalent to a norm metric while failing even to come from a norm, so it certainly does not come from a norm equivalent to the original one. This refutes the statement.

Depends on

Used by

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Dependency tree · two levels

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Sources