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CounterexampleConstruction: AI-generatedVerification: AI-adaptedprecheck passjudge pass (gpt-6-sol)audited 2026-09-30
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An invariant subspace need not reduce an operator

Statement

On C2 with its standard inner product, let T have matrix T=(1100) in the standard orthonormal basis e1,e2, and let M=span⁡{e1}. Using the convention that M reduces T when both M and M⊥ are T-invariant, M is invariant but does not reduce T: its orthogonal complement M⊥=span⁡{e2} is not T-invariant. If Q is the orthogonal projection onto M⊥, then QTQ=0 even though Te2=e1≠0.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: The standard orthonormal basis e1,e2 of C2, the displayed linear operator T, and M=span⁡{e1}.

[A1]

A subspace W is T-invariant exactly when T(W)⊆W (Invariant subspaces, restrictions, and induced quotient operators).

[A2]

A vector is in S⊥ exactly when it is orthogonal to every vector of S (Orthogonality and the orthogonal complement).

[A3]

For a finite-dimensional inner-product space and subspace W, the orthogonal projection PWx is the unique W-component of x in V=W⊕W⊥ (The orthogonal projection PWv is the W-component in V=W⊕W⊥).

Proof

technique · direct

Given: The data in the statement and facts [A1]–[A3].

1.1algebra

Matrix multiplication gives Te1=e1 and Te2=e1, so for all a,b∈C, T(ae1+be2)=(a+b)e1.

1.2A2A3

For x=ae1+be2, be2∈M⊥ and ae1∈(M⊥)⊥, so the orthogonal decomposition in [A3] gives Qx=PM⊥x=be2.

2.1A1A2step 1.1

Every m=ae1∈M satisfies Tm=ae1∈M, so T(M)⊆M and M is invariant by [A1]. Since e2∈M⊥ but Te2=e1∉M⊥, we also have T(M⊥)⊈M⊥ by [A2] and step 1.1.

3.1step 1.1step 1.2step 2.1∎

For every x=ae1+be2, step 1.2 and step 1.1 give QTQx=QT(be2)=Q(be1)=0, while step 1.1 gives Te2=e1≠0. Thus the orthogonal compression vanishes although T has a nonzero block from M⊥ into M; combining this with step 2.1 proves the stated counterexample.

Depends on

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