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LemmaStatement: Literature-sourcedProof: AI-adaptedSession-authored (Fable 5 assisted)precheck passjudge pass (deepseek-v4-pro + gpt-5.6-terra)audited 2026-08-16
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If gcd(f,g)=1 and (fg)(T)=0, then V=kerf(T)kerg(T)

Statement

Let T:VV be an endomorphism and let f,gF[x] satisfy gcd(f,g)=1 and (fg)(T)=0. Then

V=kerf(T)kerg(T).

Facts & Assumptions

Given: An endomorphism T and coprime polynomials f,g with (fg)(T)=0.

[L1]

If gcd(f,g)=1, Bézout's identity supplies a,bF[x] with af+bg=1 (Bézout identity and the Euclidean algorithm for polynomials over a field, The monic greatest common divisor of two polynomials over a field).

[L3]

Polynomial evaluation sends p(x)=akxk to p(T)=akTk, with T0=I (Polynomial evaluation at an endomorphism: p(T)=kakTk).

Proof

technique · direct
1.1

Choose a,b as in [L1]. Evaluating the identity gives a(T)f(T)+b(T)g(T)=I.

L1L3choose
2.1

For vV, write v=a(T)f(T)v+b(T)g(T)v. The first summand lies in kerg(T) and the second in kerf(T) because polynomial evaluations commute and (fg)(T)=0. Thus the two kernels span V.

step 1.1L3givenalgebra
3.1

If v lies in both kernels, step 1.1 gives v=a(T)f(T)v+b(T)g(T)v=0. Hence their intersection is zero, and [L2] proves the direct sum. Unit factors and the zero space satisfy the same calculation.

step 1.1L2

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