Alphabeta Math
TheoremStatement: Literature-sourcedProof: AI-adaptedprecheck passaudited 2026-08-27
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A map into Rn is measurable exactly when its coordinates are measurable

Statement

Let n≥1, let (X,A) be a measurable space, and let f=(f1,…,fn):X→Rn. Then f is measurable if and only if each coordinate function fj:X→R is measurable.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: A natural number n≥1, a measurable space (X,A), and a function f=(f1,…,fn):X→Rn.

[L2]

A generating family on the codomain suffices to test measurability. (A generating family on the codomain suffices to test measurability)

[L3]

Real-valued measurability is equivalent to threshold measurability. (Threshold characterisations of real-valued and extended-real-valued measurability)

Proof

technique · direct
1.1L3given

Suppose f is measurable. Fix j and a real a. Then

{x:fj(x)>a}=f−1 ⁣(Rj−1×(a,∞)×Rn−j).

The displayed strip is open, hence Borel in Rn, so the preimage is measurable. By [L3], each coordinate fj is measurable. [L3, given]

1.2

Conversely, suppose every coordinate fj is measurable. Let [L1, L3, algebra] B=∏j=1n(aj,bj) be a rational open box. Then

f−1(B)=⋂j=1n{x:aj<fj(x)<bj},

and each factor on the right is measurable by [L3]. Therefore f−1(B)∈A for every rational open box B. [L1, L3, algebra]

2.1step 1.1step 1.2L1L2∎

By [L1] and [L2], step 1.2 implies that f is measurable. Together with [step 1.1, step 1.2, L1, L2] step 1.1, this proves the equivalence.

Depends on

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