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TheoremStatement: AI-adaptedProof: AI-generatedprecheck passverified 2026-08-10 (gpt-5.6-terra-codex-subscription)
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A sequence of real-valued functions converges uniformly if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy

Statement

Let X be a set and let fk:X→R for every k∈N. Then (fk) converges uniformly on X to some f:X→R if and only if (fk) is uniformly Cauchy on X (Pointwise convergence, uniform convergence, and the uniformly Cauchy condition for sequences of real-valued functions).

Facts & Assumptions

Given: A set X and a sequence of functions fk:X→R.

[A1]

Uniform convergence to f means that for every real ε>0 there is N such that ∣fk(x)−f(x)∣<ε for every k≥N and every x∈X (Pointwise convergence, uniform convergence, and the uniformly Cauchy condition for sequences of real-valued functions).

[A2]

Uniform Cauchyness means that for every real ε>0 there is N such that ∣fm(x)−fn(x)∣<ε for every m,n≥N and every x∈X (Pointwise convergence, uniform convergence, and the uniformly Cauchy condition for sequences of real-valued functions).

[A3]

Pointwise convergence as defined through real sequences can equivalently be tested with every positive real error (Pointwise convergence, uniform convergence, and the uniformly Cauchy condition for sequences of real-valued functions).

[L1]

For reals u,v, ∣u+v∣≤∣u∣+∣v∣ (The triangle inequality).

Proof

technique · direct
1.1A1A2L1choosealgebra

Suppose first that fk→f uniformly on X, and let ε>0 be real. By [A1] choose N with ∣fj(x)−f(x)∣<ε/2 for every j≥N and x∈X. Thus, for m,n≥N and x∈X, ∣fm(x)−fn(x)∣≤∣fm(x)−f(x)∣+∣f(x)−fn(x)∣<ε. Since ε was arbitrary, (fk) is uniformly Cauchy.

1.2A2L2construct

Conversely, suppose that (fk) is uniformly Cauchy on X. For each x∈X, [A2] makes (fk(x)) a Cauchy real sequence; by [L2] it has a real limit f(x). These values define a function f:X→R.

1.3A2choose

Under this converse assumption, let ε>0 be real and choose N such that ∣fm(x)−fn(x)∣<ε/2 for every m,n≥N and every x∈X.

2.1step 1.2step 1.3A3L1choose

Fix k≥N and x∈X. Pointwise convergence at x gives a threshold M such that ∣fn(x)−f(x)∣<ε/2 for n≥M. Choose n≥N,M. Then ∣fk(x)−f(x)∣≤∣fk(x)−fn(x)∣+∣fn(x)−f(x)∣<ε.

3.1step 1.1step 2.1A1∎

The index N in step 1.3 is independent of k and x, so step 2.1 proves fk→f uniformly. Together with step 1.1 this proves both directions.

Depends on

Dependency tree · 2 levels

Sources