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G(x)=x2sin⁡(1/x) has a bounded derivative discontinuous at 0 that is nevertheless Riemann integrable, and Newton–Leibniz evaluates its integral

Example

Define G:[0,1]→R by

G(0)=0,G(x)=x2sin⁡(1/x)(0<x≤1).

Then G is differentiable on [0,1], with

G′(0)=0,G′(x)=2xsin⁡(1/x)−cos⁡(1/x)(0<x≤1).

The derivative is bounded and is continuous except at 0, but it is not continuous at 0. Consequently G′ is Riemann integrable and

∫01G′(x) dx=G(1)−G(0)=sin⁡1.

Moreover, arbitrarily near 0 the derivative takes the values −1 and 1 up to terms tending to 0: at xk=1/(2πk) and yk=1/((2k+1)π), G′(xk)=−1 and G′(yk)=1 for every integer k≥1.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: The function G above.

[L2]

∣sin⁡t∣≤1 and ∣cos⁡t∣≤1 for every real t (Parity and the Pythagorean identity for sine and cosine).

[L3]

The number π is positive, and shifts by π alternate the signs of sine and cosine (Pi as twice the smallest positive zero of cosine, Quarter-turn values and shifts by pi/2 and pi).

[L5]

A bounded function with an at-most-countable discontinuity set is Riemann integrable (A bounded function on [a,b] whose set of discontinuities is at most countable is Riemann integrable).

[L6]

Newton--Leibniz holds for a continuous function with an interior derivative having an integrable extension (Newton–Leibniz needs only continuity on [a,b], differentiability on (a,b), and a Riemann-integrable extension of the interior derivative).

Verification

technique · direct
1.1

Since ∣G(x)∣≤x2, the quotient (G(x)−G(0))/x has absolute value at most x and tends to 0; hence G′(0)=0.

givenL2
1.2

For x>0, [L1] gives G′(x)=2xsin⁡(1/x)−cos⁡(1/x).

givenL1
2.1

By [L2], ∣G′(x)∣≤2x+1≤3 on (0,1], so G′ is bounded. The displayed formula is continuous away from 0.

step 1.2L2
2.2

By [L3], sine vanishes and cosine equals 1 at 2πk, while sine vanishes and cosine equals −1 at (2k+1)π; substituting gives G′(xk)=−1 and G′(yk)=1. Both sequences tend to 0 by [L4], so G′ is discontinuous there.

step 1.2L3L4
3.1

Thus the discontinuity set is exactly {0}, and [L5] makes G′ Riemann integrable.

step 2.1step 2.2L5
4.1

Applying [L6] to G and G′ yields ∫01G′=G(1)−G(0)=sin⁡1.

step 1.1step 1.2step 3.1L6∎

Depends on

Used by

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Sources