Alphabeta Math
LemmaStatement: AI-adaptedProof: AI-generatedprecheck passjudge pass (z-ai/glm-5.2)audited 2026-07-28
How statement and proof provenance work

The first chip identifies the source of the statement or construction; the second identifies the source of its local proof or verification.

  • Literature-sourced: the exact statement appears in a cited source; only wording and notation differ.
  • AI-adapted: a semantically identical restatement of literature-sourced material, modulo indexing, notation, and boundary cases adopted by the library.
  • AI-generated: a genuinely novel statement formulated by AI, with no source for the claim itself.

These labels describe origin, not correctness: citations and verification chips remain separate evidence.

A ring homomorphism between fields is a field homomorphism in the published sense, and every such map is injective

Statement

Let F and G be fields (Field), regarded as rings by Every field is a commutative ring with 1≠0; it is an integral domain, and it is a commutative division ring, and let f:F→G be a function. Then:

  1. f is a ring homomorphism (Ring homomorphism: additive, multiplicative, and required to send 1 to 1) if and only if f is a field homomorphism (Field homomorphism and embedding); the two definitions impose the same three conditions;
  2. every such f is injective (Injection, surjection, bijection).

So "ring homomorphism between fields" and "field homomorphism" name the same maps, and no second notion of homomorphism of fields is introduced.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: Fields F and G, with zeros 0F,0G and identities 1F,1G, and a function f:F→G (Field).

[L2]

A ring homomorphism is a map satisfying (RH1) f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y), (RH2) f(xy)=f(x)f(y) and (RH3) f(1F)=1G (Ring homomorphism: additive, multiplicative, and required to send 1 to 1).

[L3]

A field homomorphism is a map satisfying φ(x+y)=φ(x)+φ(y), φ(xy)=φ(x)φ(y) and φ(1F)=1G (Field homomorphism and embedding).

[L6]

In a field, every x≠0 has an inverse x−1 with x−1x=1, and 1G≠0G (Field).

[L7]

A map is injective when f(a)=f(b) forces a=b (Injection, surjection, bijection).

Proof

technique · direct
1.1

By [L1] the ring structures on F and G are the field structures, so the expressions f(x)+f(y), f(x)f(y), 1F and 1G mean the same thing in [L2] and in [L3].

L1
2.1

Claim 1: the three conditions of [L2] and the three conditions of [L3] are the same three equations, so f satisfies one triple exactly when it satisfies the other.

step 1.1L2L3
3.1

Let f be such a map and suppose f(a)=f(b) with a≠b. Then a−b≠0F, and f(a−b)=f(a)−f(b)=0G by [L4].

step 2.1L4
4.1

Put c:=(a−b)−1, which exists by [L6]. Then 1G=f(1F)=f(c(a−b))=f(c)f(a−b)=f(c)⋅0G=0G, using (RH3), (RH2) and [L5]. This contradicts 1G≠0G.

step 3.1L2L5L6
5.1

Hence f(a)=f(b) forces a=b, so f is injective; with step 2.1 this proves both claims.

step 2.1step 4.1L7∎

Remarks

Depends on

Used by

Nothing in the library uses this result yet.

Dependency tree · two levels

31 results within two dependency steps of this one, each drawn at its shortest distance from it. An arrow runs from a result to what uses it, so the chart reads left to right and ends at this result, which carries a heavier outline. Every node is a link to that result. Click elsewhere on the chart to enlarge it.

Sources