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LemmaStatement: AI-adaptedProof: AI-generatedSession-authored (Fable 5 assisted)precheck passjudge pass (z-ai/glm-5.2)audited 2026-07-28
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A ring homomorphism between fields is a field homomorphism in the published sense, and every such map is injective

Statement

Let FF and GG be fields (Field), regarded as rings by Every field is a commutative ring with 101 \ne 0; it is an integral domain, and it is a commutative division ring, and let f:FGf : F \to G be a function. Then:

  1. ff is a ring homomorphism (Ring homomorphism: additive, multiplicative, and required to send 11 to 11) if and only if ff is a field homomorphism (Field homomorphism and embedding); the two definitions impose the same three conditions;
  2. every such ff is injective (Injection, surjection, bijection).

So "ring homomorphism between fields" and "field homomorphism" name the same maps, and no second notion of homomorphism of fields is introduced.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: Fields FF and GG, with zeros 0F,0G0_F, 0_G and identities 1F,1G1_F, 1_G, and a function f:FGf : F \to G (Field).

[L2]

A ring homomorphism is a map satisfying (RH1) f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)f(x+y) = f(x)+f(y), (RH2) f(xy)=f(x)f(y)f(xy) = f(x)f(y) and (RH3) f(1F)=1Gf(1_F) = 1_G (Ring homomorphism: additive, multiplicative, and required to send 11 to 11).

[L3]

A field homomorphism is a map satisfying φ(x+y)=φ(x)+φ(y)\varphi(x+y) = \varphi(x)+\varphi(y), φ(xy)=φ(x)φ(y)\varphi(xy) = \varphi(x)\varphi(y) and φ(1F)=1G\varphi(1_F) = 1_G (Field homomorphism and embedding).

[L6]

In a field, every x0x \ne 0 has an inverse x1x^{-1} with x1x=1x^{-1}x = 1, and 1G0G1_G \ne 0_G (Field).

[L7]

A map is injective when f(a)=f(b)f(a) = f(b) forces a=ba = b (Injection, surjection, bijection).

Proof

technique · direct
1.1

By [L1] the ring structures on FF and GG are the field structures, so the expressions f(x)+f(y)f(x)+f(y), f(x)f(y)f(x)f(y), 1F1_F and 1G1_G mean the same thing in [L2] and in [L3].

L1
2.1

Claim 1: the three conditions of [L2] and the three conditions of [L3] are the same three equations, so ff satisfies one triple exactly when it satisfies the other.

step 1.1L2L3
3.1

Let ff be such a map and suppose f(a)=f(b)f(a) = f(b) with aba \ne b. Then ab0Fa - b \ne 0_F, and f(ab)=f(a)f(b)=0Gf(a-b) = f(a) - f(b) = 0_G by [L4].

step 2.1L4
4.1

Put c:=(ab)1c := (a-b)^{-1}, which exists by [L6]. Then 1G=f(1F)=f(c(ab))=f(c)f(ab)=f(c)0G=0G1_G = f(1_F) = f(c(a-b)) = f(c)f(a-b) = f(c) \cdot 0_G = 0_G, using (RH3), (RH2) and [L5]. This contradicts 1G0G1_G \ne 0_G.

step 3.1L2L5L6
5.1

Hence f(a)=f(b)f(a) = f(b) forces a=ba = b, so ff is injective; with step 2.1 this proves both claims.

step 2.1step 4.1L7

Remarks

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