Alphabeta Math
PropositionStatement: AI-adaptedProof: AI-generatedprecheck passaudited 2026-08-31
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The p-functional need not be a norm for 0<p<1

Statement

Let 0<p<1. Then the functional

[f](fpdμ)1/p

on Lp(μ) need not satisfy the triangle inequality. Consequently it is not a norm in general in the sense of A norm on a real vector space, the induced metric, and the dictionary with the metric axioms.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: A real exponent 0<p<1.

[L3]

Counting measure on a two-point set is a measure (Counting measure on an arbitrary set, Counting measure is a measure).

Proof

Proof technique: Use two disjoint equal-mass indicators, so the triangle inequality becomes the scalar inequality 21/p2, which fails because 1/p>1.

1.1

Work on the two-point counting space {0,1} from [L3]. Let [L3, given] e0:=χ{0} and e1:=χ{1}. Then e0p=e1p=1,e0+e1p=(1+1)1/p=21/p.

2.1

Because 0<p<1, one has 1/p>1. Strict monotonicity in [L1] therefore [L1, step 1.1] gives 21/p>21=2. So e0+e1p>e0p+e1p.

3.1

The triangle inequality from [L2] fails on this concrete measure space, so [L2, step 2.1] the p-functional is not a norm in general for 0<p<1. ∎

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