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TheoremStatement: Literature-sourcedProof: AI-generatedprecheck passaudited 2026-08-27
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Every infinite regular continued fraction converges to a unique real number

Statement

Let [a0;a1,a2,…] be an infinite regular continued fraction, and let cn:=pn/qn be its convergents. Then:

  1. c0<c2<c4<⋯ and c1>c3>c5>⋯;
  2. every even convergent is below every odd convergent; and
  3. there is a unique real number x such that both subsequences (c2m)m≥0 and (c2m+1)m≥0 converge to x.

This real number is the value of the infinite regular continued fraction.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: An infinite regular continued fraction and its convergents cn=pn/qn.

[F1]

Consecutive convergents satisfy cn−cn−1=(−1)n−1qnqn−1 for n≥1 (Determinant identity for consecutive convergents).

[F2]

Every complete ordered field is Archimedean (Every complete ordered field is Archimedean).

Proof

technique · direct
1.1givenF1inductionalgebra

Since every partial quotient after the first is at least 1. [given, F1, induction, algebra] The denominators satisfy qn+1=an+1qn+qn−1≥qn+qn−1>qn>0 for n≥1, with q0=1 and q1=a1≥1. Thus (qn) is nondecreasing from q0 onward and strictly increasing from q1 onward, and induction on n gives qn≥n for n≥1.

2.1F1step 1.1algebra

By [F1], the signs of cn−cn−1 alternate, and by step 1.1 their absolute values strictly decrease. [F1, step 1.1, algebra] Hence c2m<c2m+1,c2m+2=c2m+1−(c2m+1−c2m+2)>c2m, and similarly c2m+3=c2m+2−(c2m+2−c2m+3)<c2m+1. So the even convergents increase, the odd convergents decrease, and every even convergent is below every odd convergent.

2.2F2step 1.1algebra

Put dn:=1/(qnqn+1). [F2, step 1.1, algebra] Step 1.1 gives dn≤1/(n(n+1)) for n≥1, and the Archimedean property [F2] therefore implies dn→0. For ε>0 choose N≥1 with 1/N<ε, then for n≥N, 0<dn≤1n(n+1)≤1n≤1N<ε.

3.1step 2.1given

Let E:={c2m:m≥0}. [step 2.1, given] By step 2.1 the set E is nonempty and bounded above by c1, so [F3] gives a real number x:=sup⁡E.

3.2step 2.1step 2.2F1

If n=2m+1 is odd, then cn−1∈E and step 2.1 gives. [step 2.1, step 2.2, F1] cn−1≤x≤cn, so 0≤cn−x≤cn−cn−1=dn−1. If n=2m is even, then cn∈E and step 2.1 gives cn≤x≤cn+1, so 0≤x−cn≤cn+1−cn=dn. Since the right-hand sides tend to 0 by step 2.2, both subsequences converge to x.

4.1step 3.2algebra∎

If y were another real with both subsequences converging to y, then for every m. [step 3.2, algebra] ∣x−y∣≤∣x−c2m∣+∣c2m−y∣, and the right-hand side tends to 0 as m→∞ by step 3.2. Hence x=y, so the value is unique.

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