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CounterexampleConstruction: Literature-sourcedVerification: AI-adaptedSession-authored (Fable 5 assisted)precheck passaudited 2026-08-11
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A two-object indiscrete preorder is equivalent but not isomorphic to its one-object poset reflection

Statement refuted

Equivalence of categories does not imply isomorphism of categories.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: The preorder C={0,1}C=\{0,1\} with xyx\le y for every x,yx,y, and the one-object poset D={}D=\{*\}.

[L2]

Quasi-inverse functors with natural isomorphisms give an equivalence (Equivalence, quasi-inverse, and adjoint equivalence of categories).

Counterexample

technique · direct
1.1

Let F:CDF:C\to D be the unique functor and let G:DCG:D\to C select 00. Then FG=1DFG=1_D.

L1
1.2

But CC has two objects and DD has one. No functor between them is bijective on objects, so [L3] rules out an isomorphism of categories.

L3
2.1

The functor GFGF is constant at 00. Since CC has exactly one arrow between every ordered pair of objects, the unique arrows x0x\to0 are the components of a natural isomorphism 1CGF1_C\Rightarrow GF.

step 1.1L1
3.1

Hence FF and GG exhibit CDC\simeq D by [L2].

step 1.1step 2.1L2
4.1

Thus CC and its one-object poset reflection DD are equivalent but not isomorphic.

step 3.1step 1.2

Depends on

Used by

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Sources