Alphabeta Math
CounterexampleConstruction: AI-adaptedVerification: AI-generatedprecheck passverified 2026-08-10 (gpt-5.6-terra-codex-subscription)
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x/(1+(k+1)2x2) converges uniformly to zero on R while every derivative at zero equals one

Statement refuted

Refuted claim: if differentiable functions converge uniformly, their derivatives must converge to the derivative of the limit.

For k∈N put ak:=ι(k+1) and define

fk(x):=x1+ak2x2(x∈R).

Then fk→0 uniformly on R, but fk′(0)=1 for every k, whereas the derivative of the zero function is 0.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: The functions fk in the Statement, with ak=ι(k+1)>0.

[L1]

Every square in an ordered field is nonnegative, with a nonzero square positive; absolute value is multiplicative (Squares of nonzero elements are positive, Basic properties of the absolute value).

[L4]

Uniform convergence requires one index controlling the error at every point (Pointwise convergence, uniform convergence, and the uniformly Cauchy condition for sequences of real-valued functions).

Counterexample

technique · direct
1.1

The denominator 1+ak2x2 is positive for every x, so fk is differentiable on R by [L2].

L1L2
1.2

From (ak∣x∣−1)2≥0 one obtains 2ak∣x∣≤1+ak2x2, hence ∣fk(x)∣≤1/(2ak) for every x∈R.

L1algebra
1.3

At x=0, the numerator x has derivative 1, the denominator 1+ak2x2 has value 1 and derivative 0, so the quotient rule gives fk′(0)=1.

L2algebra
1.4

The zero function has derivative 0 by the constant case of the power rule.

L2
2.1

Given ε>0, [L3] gives N such that 1/(2ak)<ε for every k≥N; step 1.2 then gives ∣fk(x)∣<ε for every x∈R.

step 1.2L3choose
3.1

Step 2.1 proves fk→0 uniformly, while steps 1.3 and 1.4 show that the derivatives at 0 do not converge to the derivative of the limit.

step 2.1step 1.3step 1.4L4
4.1

The uniformly convergent differentiable sequence therefore refutes the claim.

step 3.1∎

Depends on

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