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CounterexampleConstruction: AI-adaptedVerification: AI-generatedSession-authored (Fable 5 assisted)precheck passjudge pass (z-ai/glm-5.2)audited 2026-07-28
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The standard unit families {ei:iN}\{\, e_i : i \in \mathbb{N} \,\} are linearly independent in FNF^{\mathbb{N}} but do not span it: the constant family 1F1_F is not a finite linear combination of them

Statement refuted

False claim: if VV is an infinite-dimensional vector space over a field FF (Finite-dimensional vector space, and its dimension dimFV\dim_F V; infinite-dimensional means having no finite basis) and BVB \subseteq V is a linearly independent subset that is not finite, then span(B)=V\operatorname{span}(B) = V.

Take FF any field, V:=FNV := F^{\mathbb{N}} the function space of all families x:NFx : \mathbb{N} \to F with the pointwise operations (The vector space FXF^{X} of all functions XFX \to F with pointwise operations, and FnF^{n} as the case X=n={0,1,,n1}X = n = \{0, 1, \dots, n-1\}), and B:={ei:iN}B := \{\, e_i : i \in \mathbb{N} \,\} the standard unit families, where ei(i)=1Fe_i(i) = 1_F and ei(n)=0Fe_i(n) = 0_F for nin \ne i. Then BB is linearly independent and not finite, VV is infinite-dimensional, and yet span(B)=E\operatorname{span}(B) = E, the linear subspace of eventually zero families, which is not all of VV: the constant family cc with c(n)=1Fc(n) = 1_F for every nn lies outside it.

So BB is an infinite linearly independent set that is not a basis of VV (Basis of a vector space: a linearly independent spanning subset; and ordered basis: an injective finite list whose image is a basis), although it is a basis of EE.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: A field FF, the vector space FNF^{\mathbb{N}}, the set EE of eventually zero families, the families eie_i, and B={ei:iN}B = \{\, e_i : i \in \mathbb{N} \,\} as above.

[L1]

EE is a linear subspace of FNF^{\mathbb{N}}; BEB \subseteq E and span(B)=E\operatorname{span}(B) = E; BB is linearly independent; and BNB \approx \mathbb{N} (The standard unit families ekFNe_k \in F^{\mathbb{N}} form a basis of the linear subspace of eventually zero families: an explicit infinite basis, built with no choice principle, claims 1, 2 and 3).

[L3]

N≉p\mathbb{N} \not\approx p for every pNp \in \mathbb{N} (The pigeonhole principle on N\mathbb{N}, claim 4); a set is finite when it is equinumerous with some natural number; \approx is symmetric and transitive (Finite, countably infinite, countable, uncountable, Equinumerous sets, ABA \approx B and ABA \preceq B).

Counterexample

technique · direct
1.1

BB is linearly independent, span(B)=E\operatorname{span}(B) = E, and BNB \approx \mathbb{N}.

L1
1.2

BB is not finite: if BpB \approx p for some pNp \in \mathbb{N} then, since BNB \approx \mathbb{N}, symmetry and transitivity of \approx would give Np\mathbb{N} \approx p, which is impossible.

L1L3
1.3

The constant family cc with c(n)=1Fc(n) = 1_F for every nn lies in FNF^{\mathbb{N}} and not in EE: for any candidate witness NN we have NNN \ge N and c(N)=1F0Fc(N) = 1_F \ne 0_F, so no NN witnesses that cc is eventually zero.

L2L5
1.4

FNF^{\mathbb{N}} is infinite-dimensional. If it had a finite basis, that basis would be a spanning set with pp elements for some pp, and then no linearly independent subset of FNF^{\mathbb{N}} would be equinumerous with N\mathbb{N}; but BB is such a subset.

L1L4
2.1

So BB is a linearly independent subset of the infinite-dimensional space FNF^{\mathbb{N}}, it is not finite, and span(B)=EFN\operatorname{span}(B) = E \ne F^{\mathbb{N}}, since cc lies in the second and not the first. The false claim therefore fails, and BB is not a basis of FNF^{\mathbb{N}}, its span not being the whole space.

step 1.1step 1.2step 1.3step 1.4

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