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CounterexampleConstruction: AI-adaptedVerification: AI-generatedprecheck passjudge pass (z-ai/glm-5.2)audited 2026-07-28
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The standard unit families { ei:i∈N } are linearly independent in FN but do not span it: the constant family 1F is not a finite linear combination of them

Statement refuted

False claim: if V is an infinite-dimensional vector space over a field F (Finite-dimensional vector space, and its dimension dim⁡FV; infinite-dimensional means having no finite basis) and B⊆V is a linearly independent subset that is not finite, then span⁡(B)=V.

Take F any field, V:=FN the function space of all families x:N→F with the pointwise operations (The vector space FX of all functions X→F with pointwise operations, and Fn as the case X=n={0,1,…,n−1}), and B:={ ei:i∈N } the standard unit families, where ei(i)=1F and ei(n)=0F for n≠i. Then B is linearly independent and not finite, V is infinite-dimensional, and yet span⁡(B)=E, the linear subspace of eventually zero families, which is not all of V: the constant family c with c(n)=1F for every n lies outside it.

So B is an infinite linearly independent set that is not a basis of V (Basis of a vector space: a linearly independent spanning subset; and ordered basis: an injective finite list whose image is a basis), although it is a basis of E.

Facts & Assumptions

Given: A field F, the vector space FN, the set E of eventually zero families, the families ei, and B={ ei:i∈N } as above.

[L1]

E is a linear subspace of FN; B⊆E and span⁡(B)=E; B is linearly independent; and B≈N (The standard unit families ek∈FN form a basis of the linear subspace of eventually zero families: an explicit infinite basis, built with no choice principle, claims 1, 2 and 3).

[L2]

FX is a vector space over F with pointwise operations, and two of its elements are equal exactly when they agree at every point (The vector space FX of all functions X→F with pointwise operations, and Fn as the case X=n={0,1,…,n−1}, Vector space over a field, Linear subspace of a vector space).

[L3]

N≉p for every p∈N (The pigeonhole principle on N, claim 4); a set is finite when it is equinumerous with some natural number; ≈ is symmetric and transitive (Finite, countably infinite, countable, uncountable, Equinumerous sets, A≈B and A⪯B).

Counterexample

technique · direct
1.1

B is linearly independent, span⁡(B)=E, and B≈N.

L1
1.2

B is not finite: if B≈p for some p∈N then, since B≈N, symmetry and transitivity of ≈ would give N≈p, which is impossible.

L1L3
1.3

The constant family c with c(n)=1F for every n lies in FN and not in E: for any candidate witness N we have N≥N and c(N)=1F≠0F, so no N witnesses that c is eventually zero.

L2L5
1.4

FN is infinite-dimensional. If it had a finite basis, that basis would be a spanning set with p elements for some p, and then no linearly independent subset of FN would be equinumerous with N; but B is such a subset.

L1L4
2.1

So B is a linearly independent subset of the infinite-dimensional space FN, it is not finite, and span⁡(B)=E≠FN, since c lies in the second and not the first. The false claim therefore fails, and B is not a basis of FN, its span not being the whole space.

step 1.1step 1.2step 1.3step 1.4∎

Remarks

Depends on

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